"traderQAMobileTestAutomationMobileBoostOn" (el-peasant)
01/29/2017 at 17:36 • Filed to: None | 0 | 7 |
In the middle. (U-1)/U can be written as (u/u) - (1/u). So then why does u/u cancel out to be U, not 1?
tpw_rules
> traderQAMobileTestAutomationMobileBoostOn
01/29/2017 at 17:38 | 0 |
Seems to be a typo. The u in 5 gets integrated to a u in 6 and that only makes sense if it was a 1 in step 5, which it should have been.
Arch Duke Maxyenko, Shit Talk Extraordinaire
> traderQAMobileTestAutomationMobileBoostOn
01/29/2017 at 17:40 | 0 |
https://media.tenor.co/images/3978d2e2df94eca4bc457522c4df6c62/raw
bob and john
> traderQAMobileTestAutomationMobileBoostOn
01/29/2017 at 17:47 | 1 |
they sort of...mistyped it.
integral of U is (u^2)/2 integral of 1 is U
(i’m going to use ~ for the integral sign, just to make it easier to type)
so it SHOULD be: ~(1- 1/u)du
= ~ 1 du - ~1/u du
= U +c - ~1/u du
= U + c -ln [U] + c
cs are both constants, so you can add them together
= U - ln [U] +c
MM54
> traderQAMobileTestAutomationMobileBoostOn
01/29/2017 at 17:47 | 0 |
That doesn’t make sense.
The end result is right though, I think they meant to have the integrand in step 5 be (1-1/u) which makes sense then when they integrate back into ‘u’ for step 6.
S65
> Arch Duke Maxyenko, Shit Talk Extraordinaire
01/29/2017 at 18:04 | 0 |
Is that weird al
Phyrxes once again has a wagon!
> traderQAMobileTestAutomationMobileBoostOn
01/29/2017 at 19:08 | 1 |
http://www.integral-calculator.com/
Let the magic happen, their explanation is much better than the one above.
FTTOHG Has Moved to https://opposite-lock.com
> traderQAMobileTestAutomationMobileBoostOn
01/29/2017 at 20:49 | 0 |
Like others said, it’s a typo in line 5. Look at line 6 and you can see that they’ve done the integral as if it was indeed 1 in line 5. If it was really a “u” on line 5, line 6 would be 0.5*u^2 - ln|u| + C_1